That is a completely false statement, and you know it. I'll demonstrate that below.
The bank is allowed to "create saleable assets" = CREATE MONEY. Where did those "saleable assets" come from? From whom did the bank purchase those "saleable assets"? From nowhere: they simply created them, as you said.
"The process by which banks create money is so simple that the mind is repelled." (John Kenneth Galbraith)
No economist of any school -- Keynesian, monetarist, Austrian, or otherwise -- disputes the fact that fractional reserve banking creates money by issuing loans. I don't know what you're trying to prove here.
Oh, come on. You know as well as I do that the reserve requirement on checking accounts is only 10% in theory. In practice, banks are allowed to do a "nightly sweep" of your money into savings accounts,
which have ZERO reserve requirements. Therefore, the effective limit on bank lending is always the capital requirement, not the reserve requirement -- and this requirement is far, far less than 10%.
If our readers want to learn about capital requirements, Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital, Basel I and II, etc., Wikipedia isn't the worst place to start:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capital_requirement
That's a breathtaking bit of Newspeak and you know it. What happens when those "assets" the bank creates aren't worth what the bank says they're worth?
Answer: the depositors lose their money -- or, with FDIC-insured deposits, the government, i.e. the taxpayers, i.e. all of us, lose our money.
Seriously: you're a smart guy and you know better. Are you one of those "Real Bills" fruitcakes? I can't think of any other reason you would be going against a fundamentally obvious truth that every single economist accepts, including the ones that can't agree on anything else.
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