Except that isn't true at all. You still haven't admitted that making after tax contributions to an traditional IRA and then converting it to a Roth IRA creates no basis so long as there isn't pre-tax money in said traditional IRA.
That's the entire point of everything I've said in this thread, and you still don't get it. Other people in this thread know what I'm saying is correct, yet you still keep coming back around to say that you're right while providing no evidence except that you are a CPA.
I think I get it. You're a CPA that can't admit you're wrong.
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